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Pytanie z
An enterprise is deploying a new internal application that requires employees to access sensitive company data. The IT department needs to choose an authentication protocol that ensures data security while facilitating easy access for authorized employees. What is the MOST suitable authentication protocol for this scenario, balancing security and accessibility?
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A. Implementing Single Sign-On (SSO) to allow employees to access multiple applications with one set of credentials.
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B. Using Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) for centralizing authentication and authorization.
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C. Applying Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) for network access control.
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D. Enforcing the use of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) for all employee interactions with the application.
Correct Wrong
Implementing Single Sign-On (SSO) (A) is the most suitable authentication protocol for balancing security and accessibility in this scenario. SSO allows employees to access multiple applications, including the new internal application, with a single set of credentials, reducing the complexity of managing multiple passwords while maintaining a secure authentication process. RADIUS (B) is more focused on network access and might not be as streamlined for application access. CHAP (C) is used for network authentication but does not provide the same level of user convenience as SSO. PKI (D) is important for secure communications but may be more complex than necessary for user authentication to an internal application.
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Pytanie z
An organization is implementing security measures at different layers of its network architecture. The IT team needs to understand the distinction between Layer 4 and Layer 7 security mechanisms. What is a primary difference in how Layer 4 and Layer 7 security devices operate, and how does this impact their functionality in network security?
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A. Layer 4 devices focus on encrypting data, while Layer 7 devices handle network routing.
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B. Layer 4 devices operate at the transport layer, managing traffic based on port and protocol, while Layer 7 devices operate at the application layer, inspecting content and application-specific traffic.
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C. Layer 4 devices provide physical security to network hardware, while Layer 7 devices protect against software-based threats.
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D. Layer 4 and Layer 7 devices are identical in functionality but differ in terms of vendor and technology.
Correct Wrong
The primary difference between Layer 4 and Layer 7 security devices lies in the OSI model layers at which they operate and the type of traffic they manage (Option B). Layer 4 security devices function at the transport layer (Layer 4 of the OSI model) and primarily manage traffic based on TCP/UDP ports and protocols. This level of security is concerned with ensuring the efficient and secure transport of data between hosts. In contrast, Layer 7 security devices operate at the application layer (Layer 7 of the OSI model) and focus on inspecting and managing the content of the traffic, as well as application-specific protocols and services. This includes analyzing HTTP requests, inspecting web content, and enforcing application-level policies. Layer 4 devices do not focus on data encryption (Option A), nor do they provide physical security (Option C), and Layer 7 devices do not handle network routing. Layer 4 and Layer 7 devices are not identical in functionality (Option D), as they target different aspects of network traffic and security.
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Pytanie z
A high-end jewelry store implements a pressure-sensitive security system in its display cases to prevent theft. The system activates an alarm if any item is removed from the case without proper authorization. During a busy day, a staff member forgets to deactivate the system before removing a piece of jewelry for a customer. What should the security system do in response to the removal of the jewelry?
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A. Temporarily disable the alarm for convenience
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B. Sound an alarm and notify store management
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C. Allow the removal without triggering the alarm
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D. Lock down the store until the situation is assessed
Correct Wrong
In the scenario where a staff member forgets to deactivate a pressure-sensitive security system in a jewelry store display case, the system should respond by sounding an alarm and notifying store management (Option B). This response is appropriate for a security system designed to prevent theft by detecting the unauthorized removal of items. Even though the removal is by a staff member, the system operates on the principle that any removal without deactivation is unauthorized. Temporarily disabling the alarm (Option A) or allowing the removal without triggering the alarm (Option C) would compromise the security of the display case. Locking down the store (Option D) might be an excessive response to a single unauthorized removal, especially if it can be quickly resolved by store management.
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Pytanie z
A large enterprise is transitioning its network infrastructure to Software-Defined Networking (SDN) to improve agility and manageability. While SDN offers several benefits, the IT security team is concerned about the potential security risks of centralizing network control. In this scenario, which of the following measures is most critical for enhancing the security of the SDN infrastructure?
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A. Reverting to traditional networking methods for sensitive data traffic.
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B. Implementing strong encryption for data-in-transit within the SDN.
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C. Deploying additional physical routers and switches to support the SDN controllers.
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D. Securing the SDN controllers with robust authentication and access controls.
Correct Wrong
In an SDN environment, the SDN controllers are the central point of network management and control, making them a critical component to secure. Implementing robust authentication and access controls for the SDN controllers (Option D) is essential to protect against unauthorized access and potential attacks. This ensures that only authorized personnel can modify network configurations and policies, thereby maintaining the integrity and security of the entire network. While strong encryption for data-in-transit (Option B) is important, it does not directly address the risks associated with the centralization of network control in SDN. Reverting to traditional networking methods for sensitive data (Option A) may undermine the benefits of SDN. Deploying additional physical routers and switches (Option C) does not enhance the security of the SDN controllers and may add unnecessary complexity.
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Pytanie z
During a physical security assessment of a data center, it is discovered that there are no surveillance cameras in critical areas such as server rooms and entry/exit points. What should be the data center’s immediate action to enhance physical security and protect sensitive equipment?
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A. Implementing biometric access controls at all entry points.
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B. Installing surveillance cameras in critical areas.
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C. Conducting regular security awareness training for staff.
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D. Upgrading the facility’s firewall and network security systems.
Correct Wrong
The physical security assessment specifically identified the absence of surveillance cameras in critical areas of the data center. To address this vulnerability, the immediate and most appropriate action is to install surveillance cameras in these areas (Option B). This enhances security by allowing monitoring of critical areas and deterring unauthorized access. Implementing biometric access controls (Option A) is an effective security measure but does not address the specific issue of surveillance. Regular security awareness training for staff (Option C) is important for overall security culture but is not a direct response to the lack of surveillance cameras. Upgrading firewall and network security systems (Option D) improves cybersecurity but does not address the physical security concerns identified in the assessment.
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Pytanie z
A cybersecurity analyst is tasked with acquiring data from a mobile device as part of an investigation into unauthorized access to corporate data. What should be the analyst’s FIRST action to ensure a proper and forensically sound acquisition of the data from the mobile device?
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A. Connecting the mobile device to the corporate network to document its current state.
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B. Placing the mobile device in airplane mode to prevent remote wiping or data alteration.
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C. Performing a factory reset on the mobile device to analyze its baseline security settings.
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D. Immediately starting the data extraction process using the first available tool.
Correct Wrong
The first action when acquiring data from a mobile device in a forensic investigation is to place the device in airplane mode (Option B). This prevents any remote access, data alteration, or wiping commands that could compromise the evidence. It is crucial to preserve the current state of the device and its data before any acquisition or analysis begins. Connecting the device to a network (Option A) or starting data extraction immediately (Option D) may expose it to potential alterations. Performing a factory reset (Option C) would completely erase the data and is counterproductive to the acquisition process.
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Pytanie z
During a company-wide security training session, employees are informed about a recent incident where a manager received a call from an individual impersonating a technology vendor. The caller requested immediate remote access to the company’s network to resolve a critical issue. The manager complied, leading to a security breach. What security practice could have prevented this vishing attack?
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A. Implementing strong password policies
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B. Conducting regular security awareness training
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C. Establishing a process for verifying the authenticity of callers
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D. Using caller ID verification
Correct Wrong
Establishing a process for verifying the authenticity of callers (C) is the security practice that could have prevented this vishing attack. By having a protocol in place to confirm the identity of callers before providing sensitive information or access, employees can better protect against vishing attempts. This protocol might include calling back through a known official number, using pre-arranged questions or codes, or confirming the request through alternative communication channels. While conducting regular security awareness training (B) is important, it needs to be coupled with specific procedures like caller verification. Implementing strong password policies (A) and using caller ID verification (D) are valuable security measures, but they are less effective in situations where attackers use social engineering to gain direct access or information, as in this vishing scenario.
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Pytanie z
A multinational corporation is audited for compliance with the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR). The audit uncovers that the corporation lacks a clear mechanism for users to consent to data collection and processing. This issue primarily affects which GDPR principle?
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A. Data minimization.
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B. Lawfulness, fairness, and transparency.
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C. Integrity and confidentiality.
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D. Accountability.
Correct Wrong
The GDPR emphasizes the importance of lawfulness, fairness, and transparency in data processing activities. A key aspect of this principle is obtaining clear and affirmative consent from individuals before collecting and processing their personal data. The lack of a clear consent mechanism in the multinational corporation's practices signifies a breach of this principle, as it fails to ensure lawful, fair, and transparent handling of user data. Data minimization (Option A) relates to collecting only necessary data, while integrity and confidentiality (Option C) focus on securing the data. Accountability (Option D) is about demonstrating compliance with GDPR, but the specific issue in this scenario is related to the principle of lawfulness, fairness, and transparency.
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Pytanie z
A consumer receives an email that appears to be from a well-known online retailer, offering an exclusive promotion. The email contains a link to a website that closely resembles the retailer’s official site. After entering personal and credit card information on the site, the consumer realizes it was a fraudulent site designed to steal information. This type of cyber attack, where a perpetrator impersonates a reputable brand, is known as what?
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A. Ransomware
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B. Brand impersonation
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C. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
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D. Insider threat
Correct Wrong
This type of cyber attack is known as brand impersonation (B), where attackers create fake websites or send emails that closely mimic legitimate businesses to deceive individuals into providing sensitive information. In this scenario, the attacker used a fraudulent email that appeared to be from a well-known online retailer, along with a website that mimicked the retailer's official site, to trick the consumer into revealing personal and credit card information. Brand impersonation exploits the trust that consumers place in established brands to carry out phishing or other types of fraud. This differs from ransomware (A), which involves encrypting a victim's data and demanding payment, DDoS attacks (C), which overwhelm a system with traffic, and insider threats (D), which involve malicious activities by individuals within an organization.
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Pytanie z
A data center providing critical services for multiple businesses is evaluating its security protocols, with a particular focus on power-related risks. What is the most important security measure for the data center to implement to protect against power outages and ensure uninterrupted operation?
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A. Deploying additional servers to handle increased data traffic.
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B. Implementing redundant power supply systems, including backup generators and uninterruptible power supplies (UPS).
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C. Upgrading the network bandwidth to improve data transmission speeds.
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D. Expanding the physical space of the data center to accommodate more equipment.
Correct Wrong
For a data center providing critical services, implementing redundant power supply systems, including backup generators and uninterruptible power supplies (UPS) (Option B), is crucial for protecting against power outages and ensuring uninterrupted operation. Redundant power systems provide an alternative power source in the event of a failure or disruption in the primary power supply, maintaining the availability of services and preventing data loss or downtime. Deploying additional servers (Option A), upgrading network bandwidth (Option C), and expanding physical space (Option D) are important for capacity and performance but do not directly address the power-related risks and the need for uninterrupted operation.
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Pytanie z
An organization is enhancing the security of its email server. The server currently uses Port 25 for SMTP, which does not offer encryption. To improve email security, which port should the organization configure for secure email transmission using SMTP with TLS (Transport Layer Security)?
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A. Port 110, commonly used for POP3, to diversify the protocol usage.
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B. Port 143, typically used for IMAP, to enhance compatibility with email clients.
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C. Port 587, recommended for secure SMTP submission with TLS.
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D. Port 80, standard for HTTP, to utilize a commonly open port.
Correct Wrong
For enhancing the security of an email server, especially for SMTP with TLS, selecting the correct port is essential. Option A, Port 110, is used for POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) and is not suitable for SMTP traffic. Option B, Port 143, is used for IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) and, like Port 110, is not designed for SMTP. Option D, Port 80, is the standard port for HTTP and is not appropriate for secure email transmission. The most suitable port for secure SMTP transmission with TLS is Option C, Port 587. Port 587 is recommended for SMTP submission and is specifically designed to work with client-to-server email submissions, particularly when using TLS for encryption. This port ensures that emails are transmitted securely, thereby enhancing the overall security of the email server.
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Pytanie z
A healthcare organization implements a key escrow system to manage encryption keys for its patient data. Following the departure of an employee who had access to sensitive patient information, the IT department needs to ensure data security. How does key escrow facilitate maintaining data security in this scenario?
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A. By automatically updating the encryption keys.
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B. By allowing authorized access to the employee’s encryption keys.
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C. By revoking the employee’s access to the system.
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D. By encrypting the data with a new key.
Correct Wrong
Key escrow is a process where encryption keys are securely held by a third party or a dedicated system within an organization, allowing authorized personnel to access these keys under specific circumstances. In this scenario, when an employee who had access to sensitive data leaves the organization, key escrow enables the IT department to access the encryption keys used by the employee. This access is crucial for scenarios where data needs to be decrypted for continuity of care, audits, or legal reasons. The key escrow system ensures that the organization can maintain the security and accessibility of encrypted patient data, even when individual employees who had access to that data are no longer with the organization.
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Pytanie z
A large corporation has implemented automated guard rails in its cloud environment to enforce security policies. Despite this, a recent audit revealed that several cloud storage buckets containing sensitive data were publicly accessible. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this security lapse?
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A. Lack of employee cybersecurity awareness training.
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B. Inadequate network firewall configurations.
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C. Guard rails not properly configured to enforce access controls.
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D. Insufficient antivirus software on end-user devices.
Correct Wrong
The scenario indicates a failure in enforcing security policies regarding access to cloud storage, which is primarily the responsibility of the automated guard rails. If these guard rails are not properly configured to enforce access controls, they may not effectively restrict public access to sensitive data stored in cloud buckets. This oversight can lead to the kind of security lapse mentioned in the audit. Option A, while important, does not directly address the issue of enforcing security policies through automation. Option B is more related to network security, and Option D focuses on endpoint security, neither of which directly relates to the enforcement of access controls on cloud storage.
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Pytanie z
An organization’s website experiences variable traffic, with surges during specific events. To handle this efficiently, the IT department must decide between implementing load balancing or clustering. Given the need to manage traffic efficiently without overburdening any single server, which technology is more suitable for dynamically distributing incoming web traffic?
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A. Load Balancing
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B. Clustering
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C. Neither Load Balancing nor Clustering
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D. Both Load Balancing and Clustering
Correct Wrong
Load balancing is the appropriate technology for dynamically distributing incoming web traffic, especially in scenarios with variable traffic. It helps in efficiently managing the load by distributing incoming network traffic across multiple servers, preventing any single server from becoming a bottleneck. This ensures that the web application remains responsive even during traffic surges. Clustering, while beneficial for high availability and fault tolerance, does not primarily focus on traffic distribution. Therefore, in the context of efficiently managing variable traffic and preventing server overburdening, option A, Load Balancing, is the correct answer.
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Pytanie z
An organization implements a new policy requiring employees to use smart cards along with their passwords for accessing the company’s secure systems. This change is in response to a recent incident where several accounts were compromised due to weak passwords. What type of authentication is being utilized by the organization to improve its security posture?
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A. Knowledge-based authentication
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B. Two-factor authentication
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C. Biometric authentication
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D. Single-factor authentication
Correct Wrong
Two-factor authentication (2FA) involves using two different types of authentication methods for verifying a user's identity. In this case, the organization is combining something the user knows (password) with something the user has (smart card). This approach greatly enhances security by adding an extra layer of defense. If a password is compromised, the attacker still needs the smart card to gain access, making unauthorized access significantly more difficult. 2FA is a practical and effective way to strengthen security, especially in response to incidents involving weak or compromised passwords.
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Pytanie z
A large manufacturing company is revising its security policies to comply with new industry regulations. The Policy Administrator is responsible for updating the policies and ensuring they align with the regulatory requirements. During the revision process, an employee suggests a policy change that conflicts with the new regulations. What is the most appropriate action for the Policy Administrator to take in this situation?
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A. Implement the suggested change immediately
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B. Reject the suggestion and explain the regulatory requirements
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C. Forward the suggestion to the IT department for technical review
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D. Adopt the suggestion but apply it only to non-regulated areas
Correct Wrong
The role of a Policy Administrator includes ensuring that security policies comply with relevant laws, regulations, and standards. In this scenario, when an employee suggests a policy change that conflicts with new industry regulations, the Policy Administrator should reject the suggestion and provide an explanation of the regulatory requirements. This action ensures that the company's security policies remain compliant with the regulations, which is a key responsibility of the Policy Administrator. Implementing the suggested change (Option A), forwarding it for technical review (Option C), or adopting it in non-regulated areas (Option D) are not appropriate actions, as they may lead to non-compliance with the regulations.
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Pytanie z
An IT manager is planning to deploy antivirus software across a network with diverse operating systems and hardware configurations. What is the MOST important consideration when selecting an antivirus solution for this environment, and what is a key benefit of this consideration?
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A. Choosing an antivirus with the highest detection rate; ensures maximum protection against known threats
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B. Selecting an antivirus that is compatible with all operating systems and hardware configurations; ensures seamless integration and functionality
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C. Opting for the most cost-effective antivirus; reduces the overall IT security budget
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D. Choosing an antivirus with the fastest scanning speed; minimizes the impact on system performance
Correct Wrong
The most important consideration in this scenario is to select an antivirus solution that is compatible with the diverse range of operating systems and hardware configurations present in the network. This ensures that the antivirus software can be seamlessly integrated and function effectively across all systems, providing consistent protection throughout the network. While detection rate (Option A), cost (Option C), and scanning speed (Option D) are important factors, compatibility is crucial for ensuring that the antivirus software works properly on every system in the diverse environment.
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Pytanie z
An e-commerce company experiences frequent traffic surges during peak shopping seasons. To maintain security while ensuring responsiveness to customer demands, what is the most important security consideration for the company’s web infrastructure during these periods?
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A. Temporarily disabling security protocols to improve website performance.
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B. Enhancing server capacity to handle increased traffic without compromising security.
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C. Shifting all operations to a third-party e-commerce platform during peak times.
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D. Concentrating solely on marketing strategies to maximize sales.
Correct Wrong
For an e-commerce company experiencing frequent traffic surges, the most important security consideration is enhancing server capacity to handle increased traffic without compromising security (Option B). This involves scaling up resources to ensure that the website remains responsive to customer demands while maintaining robust security measures to protect against potential threats. Temporarily disabling security protocols (Option A) can expose the website to cyber attacks and is not advisable. Shifting operations to a third-party platform (Option C) may not be feasible or desirable and could introduce additional security and control challenges. Focusing solely on marketing strategies (Option D) does not address the critical need to balance responsiveness with security during peak traffic periods.
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Pytanie z
A large corporation recently experienced a network breach where attackers exploited vulnerabilities in the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) service running on their mail server. As part of the response, the security team decides to review and update the firewall settings related to ports and protocols. Considering the need to maintain email functionality while enhancing security, which of the following firewall modifications would be most effective?
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A. Block all SMTP traffic at the firewall.
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B. Restrict SMTP traffic to only allow connections from trusted external IP addresses.
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C. Replace SMTP with a more secure protocol for email communication.
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D. Enable logging for all SMTP traffic to monitor for suspicious activities.
Correct Wrong
In this scenario, the goal is to enhance security without disrupting email functionality. Option A, blocking all SMTP traffic, would prevent the mail server from functioning properly, disrupting email services. Option C, replacing SMTP with a more secure protocol, could enhance security but would require significant changes to the email infrastructure and may not be immediately feasible. Option D, enabling logging, is a good security practice but does not prevent exploitation of vulnerabilities. The most effective solution is Option B, restricting SMTP traffic to only allow connections from trusted external IP addresses. This approach reduces the attack surface by limiting potential attackers' access to the SMTP service while allowing legitimate email traffic.
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Pytanie z
A healthcare organization conducts an internal audit and finds that several employees have access to patient data beyond their job requirements. What is the most appropriate next step to align with effective internal security compliance?
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A. Increase the frequency of internal audits.
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B. Implement role-based access control (RBAC) to limit access based on job roles.
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C. Provide additional training to all employees on data privacy.
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D. Encrypt all patient data to prevent unauthorized access.
Correct Wrong
Implementing role-based access control (RBAC) (Option B) is the most appropriate step to ensure that employees only have access to data necessary for their job roles, aligning with effective internal security compliance. Increasing the frequency of internal audits (Option A) is beneficial but does not address the immediate issue of excessive data access. Providing additional training (Option C) is important for awareness but does not directly restrict unnecessary access. Encrypting all patient data (Option D) enhances data security but does not solve the problem of excessive access rights. RBAC directly addresses the issue by aligning access rights with job requirements, thereby reducing the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches.
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Pytanie z
A network security analyst at a company notices that confidential information is being leaked. After an investigation, it is discovered that an attacker is intercepting and modifying data packets as they travel across the network. This type of attack is known as an on-path attack. What should be the FIRST action the analyst should take to mitigate this attack?
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A. Change all user passwords and network access credentials.
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B. Implement HTTPS and other secure protocols for all data transmissions.
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C. Install a more advanced intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic.
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D. Physically secure the network infrastructure to prevent unauthorized access.
Correct Wrong
The most effective first action to mitigate an on-path attack, where data packets are being intercepted and modified, is to implement secure protocols like HTTPS (Option B). These protocols encrypt data in transit, making it difficult for attackers to read or alter the information. Changing user passwords (Option A) is important for overall security but does not address the issue of data interception. Installing an advanced IDS (Option C) can help detect suspicious activities but does not prevent the interception and modification of data. Physically securing the network infrastructure (Option D) is essential, but the attack might be occurring at any point along the data path, not necessarily within the physical premises of the company.
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Pytanie z
An organization’s IT department has automated several time-consuming security tasks, such as patch management and log analysis. However, the department is still facing challenges in proactively identifying and mitigating emerging threats. What should the IT department focus on to leverage automation as a workforce multiplier more effectively?
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A. Increasing the budget for purchasing more advanced security tools.
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B. Training the IT staff to analyze trends and develop proactive security strategies.
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C. Outsourcing all security functions to a managed security service provider.
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D. Implementing stricter access controls and security policies.
Correct Wrong
To leverage automation as a workforce multiplier more effectively, especially in the context of challenges in identifying and mitigating emerging threats, the IT department should focus on training the IT staff to analyze trends and develop proactive security strategies (option B). Automation frees up time by handling routine tasks, allowing IT staff to focus on higher-level functions such as trend analysis, threat hunting, and strategic planning. This approach maximizes the benefits of automation by using the saved time for activities that require human expertise and judgment. Options A, C, and D might be beneficial in other contexts but do not directly address the issue of effectively leveraging automation to enhance the capabilities of the existing workforce.
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Pytanie z
During a routine OSINT gathering exercise, a cybersecurity team at TechGuard Inc. discovers a leaked database containing login credentials that match their company’s email domain. What is the most effective initial action for the team to mitigate the potential risk posed by this exposure?
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A. Notify all employees to change their passwords immediately.
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B. Conduct an internal investigation to identify the source of the leak.
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C. Monitor the dark web for further information about the leaked database.
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D. Conduct an internal investigation to identify the source of the leak.
Correct Wrong
In the event of discovering a leaked database containing company login credentials through open-source intelligence (OSINT), the primary concern is to mitigate the risk of unauthorized access. The most effective initial action is to notify all employees whose credentials are potentially compromised to change their passwords immediately. This step helps prevent attackers from using the exposed credentials to gain access to the company's systems or data. It's a direct and proactive measure to safeguard against potential exploitation of the leaked information. Option B, conducting an internal investigation, is important but secondary to the immediate need to secure accounts. Option C, monitoring the dark web, can provide additional insights but does not address the immediate risk. Option D, contacting the authorities, is a relevant step in the case of a confirmed data breach, but the first priority should be to secure the potentially compromised accounts.
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Pytanie z
A major online retailer experienced a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack during a significant sales event, leading to the temporary shutdown of its website. The attack did not result in any data breach or ransom demands but caused substantial financial loss due to interrupted sales. What type of threat actor is most likely responsible for this incident?
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A. A cybercriminal group seeking financial extortion
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B. A competitor engaging in corporate sabotage
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C. An individual or group aiming to cause disruption and chaos
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D. A state-sponsored actor disrupting economic activities
Correct Wrong
The DDoS attack on the online retailer during a significant sales event, which led to substantial financial loss but did not involve data breach or ransom demands, is indicative of a threat actor aiming to cause disruption and chaos (Option C). This type of attack is often motivated by the desire to disrupt operations and create chaos for its own sake, rather than for financial extortion (Option A), corporate sabotage (Option B), or as part of state-sponsored activities (Option D). The lack of a clear financial or strategic motive suggests the goal was to cause disruption during a critical business period.
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Pytanie z
A software company uses hashing to verify the integrity of its software updates before distribution. When an update is ready, a hash value is generated and later compared with the hash value of the downloaded update. How does hashing enhance the security of the software update process in this scenario?
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A. It encrypts the software update to prevent unauthorized access.
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B. It generates a unique hash value to verify the update’s integrity.
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C. It increases the download speed of the software update.
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D. It compresses the software update to reduce file size.
Correct Wrong
In the context of a software company distributing updates, hashing plays a crucial role in ensuring the integrity of the software updates. Hashing involves generating a unique hash value (a fixed-size string of characters) from the software update's data. This hash value acts as a digital fingerprint of the update. When users download the update, they can generate a hash value from the downloaded file and compare it to the original hash value provided by the software company. If the hash values match, it confirms that the update has not been altered or tampered with during transmission. This process ensures that the software update remains intact and trustworthy, safeguarding against potential threats like malware insertion or data corruption.
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Pytanie z
An IT security analyst at a company notices an unusual increase in log entries during off-hours, which is atypical for the organization’s normal operations. The out-of-cycle logging raises concerns about potential unauthorized activities or system malfunctions. What is the MOST effective immediate action the analyst should take to investigate this anomaly?
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A. Implement stricter access controls to all systems and servers.
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B. Analyze the log entries to identify any unusual or unauthorized activities.
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C. Increase the logging level to capture more detailed information about system activities.
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D. Conduct a company-wide password reset to ensure all accounts are secure.
Correct Wrong
The most effective immediate action to investigate the anomaly of out-of-cycle logging is to analyze the log entries (Option B). This involves reviewing the logs for any signs of unusual or unauthorized activities that could indicate a security breach or system malfunction. Implementing stricter access controls (Option A) is a good security practice but does not address the immediate need to understand the cause of the increased logging. Increasing the logging level (Option C) might provide more detailed information but can also generate an overwhelming amount of data and may not be necessary to identify the issue. Conducting a company-wide password reset (Option D) is disruptive and may not be relevant if the cause of the logging is unrelated to account security.
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Pytanie z
A large retail company experienced a data breach in which sensitive customer information was leaked. The incident response team was able to contain the breach quickly, but there was a significant delay in notifying affected customers. Considering this incident, what should be the PRIMARY improvement in the company’s incident response plan?
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A. Investing in more advanced intrusion detection systems.
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B. Developing a comprehensive public relations strategy.
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C. Establishing a clear protocol for timely communication with affected parties.
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D. Focusing on stronger encryption methods for customer data.
Correct Wrong
The primary improvement needed in the company's incident response plan is establishing a clear protocol for timely communication with affected parties (Option C). This ensures that customers are promptly informed about the breach and can take necessary actions to protect their information. While investing in detection systems (Option A) and focusing on encryption methods (Option D) are important for prevention and protection, they do not address the issue of communication during an incident. A public relations strategy (Option B) is important for managing the company's image but should be part of a broader communication protocol.
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Pytanie z
In an organization, the IT department sets up an automated attestation process for reviewing and confirming user access rights. However, a subsequent security review finds that several users still have access rights that they should not possess. What is the MOST likely reason for the failure of the automated attestation process?
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A. The attestation process does not include a manual review component.
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B. Users are bypassing the attestation process by using VPNs.
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C. The automated system is not integrated with all the organization’s resources.
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D. There is a lack of regular training on the importance of attestation.
Correct Wrong
The most likely reason for the failure of the automated attestation process is that the system is not integrated with all the organization's resources (Option C). For an automated attestation system to be effective, it must have access to and control over all the systems and resources where user access rights are granted. If it is not fully integrated, some access rights may not be reviewed and revoked as needed. While manual review (Option A) and regular training (Option D) are important, they do not directly address the issue of incomplete system integration. Users bypassing the attestation process using VPNs (Option B) is unlikely, as attestation is about confirming access rights rather than controlling real-time access.
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Pytanie z
An organization is retiring old workstations as part of an IT upgrade. The IT team follows a strict protocol to securely erase all data and perform a factory reset on each workstation before disposal. What is the key reason for implementing these decommissioning steps?
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A. To ensure compatibility with new IT infrastructure.
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B. To facilitate the resale or donation of the workstations.
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C. To safeguard against the recovery of proprietary data.
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D. To reduce the cost of maintaining older equipment.
Correct Wrong
The key reason for implementing secure data erasure and factory reset procedures during the decommissioning of old workstations is to safeguard against the recovery of proprietary data. By thoroughly erasing all data and resetting the workstations, the organization ensures that sensitive or proprietary information cannot be retrieved by subsequent users, thereby protecting data confidentiality and security. While facilitating resale or donation (Option B) and reducing maintenance costs (Option D) may be secondary considerations, the primary focus is on preventing unauthorized access to and recovery of sensitive data. Ensuring compatibility with new IT infrastructure (Option A) is not a direct concern in the decommissioning process.
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Pytanie z
A multinational corporation operates in several European countries, each with its own local data protection regulations, in addition to the overarching GDPR requirements. During a security audit, it was found that the corporation’s policies were only aligned with GDPR, neglecting some local regulations. What is the MOST effective approach to ensure full legal compliance across all operations?
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A. Harmonizing the corporation’s policies to align strictly with GDPR guidelines.
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B. Consulting with legal experts in each country to align policies with local regulations.
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C. Creating a universal policy that ignores local variations to simplify compliance.
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D. Focusing on the country with the strictest regulations and applying its standards universally.
Correct Wrong
The most effective approach to ensure full legal compliance is to consult with legal experts in each country to align the corporation's policies with both GDPR and local data protection regulations (Option B). This ensures that the corporation's policies are tailored to meet the specific legal requirements in each jurisdiction, thereby avoiding the risk of non-compliance. While harmonizing policies with GDPR (Option A) is important, it does not address the nuances of local regulations. Creating a universal policy that ignores local variations (Option C) could lead to non-compliance in specific countries. Focusing on the strictest regulations (Option D) may not adequately address all local legal requirements.
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Pytanie z
A company’s receptionist receives a call from an individual claiming to be from the IT department, stating they need remote access to update software on the company’s server. The caller provides specific technical details and sounds professional, but the receptionist has not been notified of any scheduled updates. In the context of social engineering, what is the appropriate action for the receptionist to take in this situation?
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A. Grant remote access as the caller seems knowledgeable and professional
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B. Ask the caller for their employee ID and verify it with the IT department
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C. Direct the caller to send an official email request to the IT department
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D. Hang up and ignore the call as it might be a social engineering attempt
Correct Wrong
In this scenario, the appropriate action to counter potential social engineering is for the receptionist to ask the caller for their employee ID and verify it with the IT department, as suggested in Option B. This step ensures that the caller's identity and request are legitimate before granting any access. It demonstrates vigilance and adherence to security protocols, crucial in preventing unauthorized access through social engineering tactics. Granting remote access without verification (Option A) is risky and could lead to a security breach. Directing the caller to send an official email request (Option C) is a safer approach but may still be part of a sophisticated social engineering attempt. Hanging up and ignoring the call (Option D) may seem like a safe choice but could potentially disregard a legitimate request, hence verification is a more balanced approach.
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Pytanie z
A corporate IT department conducts an audit of company computers and decides to remove all unnecessary software applications. Following this action, the frequency of malware infections significantly decreases. What is the primary security advantage of removing unnecessary software from company computers?
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A. To free up storage space and enhance the computers’ performance.
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B. To reduce the risk of malware infections by minimizing attack vectors.
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C. To simplify the user interface for employees.
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D. To streamline software update and maintenance processes.
Correct Wrong
The primary security advantage of removing unnecessary software from company computers is to reduce the risk of malware infections by minimizing attack vectors. Unnecessary or unused software can be exploited as a potential entry point for malware and other cyber threats. By removing these applications, the IT department effectively reduces the number of vulnerabilities that could be targeted by attackers, thereby decreasing the likelihood of malware infections. This proactive measure enhances the overall security of the IT infrastructure. While freeing up storage space and enhancing performance (Option A), simplifying the user interface (Option C), and streamlining software updates (Option D) are beneficial, the key objective in this context is to improve security by reducing potential vulnerabilities.
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Pytanie z
During a security review, an IT auditor discovers that a company’s web application is vulnerable to brute force attacks due to weak password policies. What is the MOST effective measure to prevent such attacks on the web application?
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A. Require all users to create complex passwords with a minimum length.
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B. Implement multi-factor authentication for user logins.
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C. Conduct regular penetration testing on the web application.
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D. Monitor and analyze login attempts to detect patterns of brute force attacks.
Correct Wrong
Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) for user logins (Option B) is the most effective measure against brute force attacks on a web application. MFA adds an additional layer of security beyond just the password, making it significantly more difficult for attackers to gain unauthorized access, even if they manage to guess or crack the password. Requiring complex passwords (Option A) is important, but MFA provides a higher level of security. Conducting regular penetration testing (Option C) is a good practice to identify vulnerabilities but does not directly prevent brute force attacks. Monitoring and analyzing login attempts (Option D) can help detect attacks, but it does not prevent them like MFA does.
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Pytanie z
A network administrator is reviewing the security logs of a Windows server and notices multiple failed login attempts on an administrator account from a remote IP address. The attempts occurred during a time when no maintenance was scheduled, and the administrator account is not used for remote access. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation for these log entries?
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A. The server is undergoing a brute force attack.
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B. There is a misconfiguration in the server’s remote access settings.
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C. The administrator account password has expired.
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D. A legitimate user is trying to access the server for unscheduled maintenance.
Correct Wrong
The scenario describes multiple failed login attempts from a remote IP address on an administrator account at an unusual time and without any scheduled maintenance. This pattern is indicative of a brute force attack, where an attacker is attempting to gain unauthorized access by trying different password combinations. The fact that the administrator account is not typically used for remote access further suggests a malicious intent. A misconfiguration in remote access settings (Option B) would not explain the multiple failed attempts. An expired password (Option C) could lead to failed logins but would more likely involve known IPs and less frequent attempts. The possibility of a legitimate user (Option D) is unlikely given the absence of scheduled maintenance and the use of an account not designated for remote access.
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Pytanie z
An educational institution uses a legacy student information system that lacks modern security features. The IT department proposes an upgrade, but stakeholders are hesitant due to the potential learning curve and integration challenges. As a result, the upgrade is postponed, and later a security breach compromises sensitive student data. What lesson can be learned about legacy applications and change management from this scenario?
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A. The necessity of conducting regular security audits on all systems.
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B. The importance of stakeholder involvement in decision-making processes.
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C. The value of upgrading legacy systems to enhance security.
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D. The need for comprehensive data encryption on all institutional systems.
Correct Wrong
This scenario illustrates the value of upgrading legacy systems, particularly regarding their security aspects, within change management processes. The educational institution's decision to postpone upgrading the legacy student information system due to concerns about the learning curve and integration challenges ultimately led to a security breach. This breach, which compromised sensitive student data, demonstrates the risks associated with using outdated systems that lack modern security features. Change management processes must prioritize the security implications of continuing to use legacy systems. Upgrading or replacing these systems with more secure and modern solutions is essential to protect against cyber threats and ensure the confidentiality and integrity of sensitive information.
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Pytanie z
An e-commerce company uses a wildcard SSL/TLS certificate for its main domain and all associated subdomains. When expanding its online services to a new subdomain, what is the primary security advantage of the existing wildcard certificate?
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A. It provides dedicated customer support for the new subdomain.
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B. It extends SSL/TLS encryption to the new subdomain without requiring an additional certificate.
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C. It optimizes the search engine ranking of the new subdomain.
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D. It increases the data storage capacity for the new subdomain.
Correct Wrong
For an e-commerce company expanding its online services to a new subdomain, the primary security advantage of using an existing wildcard SSL/TLS certificate is that it extends SSL/TLS encryption to the new subdomain without the need for an additional certificate. A wildcard certificate is designed to secure the main domain and all its subdomains with a single certificate. This means that when the company adds a new subdomain to its online presence, the wildcard certificate automatically provides SSL/TLS encryption for this subdomain as well. This capability simplifies the process of securing new subdomains, ensuring that they are protected with encryption from the outset and maintaining a consistent level of security across the company's entire web domain.
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Pytanie z
A large enterprise experiences a data breach, and the subsequent investigation reveals that the breach was due to an incorrectly configured firewall, which left several critical ports open to the internet. This oversight allowed attackers to exploit vulnerabilities and gain unauthorized access to the network. What type of vulnerability does this incident best illustrate?
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A. Social Engineering
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B. Misconfiguration
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C. Malware Infection
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D. Physical Security Breach
Correct Wrong
This incident best illustrates a Misconfiguration vulnerability. Misconfiguration occurs when security settings, in this case, the configuration of a firewall, are not correctly implemented or maintained, leading to security weaknesses. The incorrectly configured firewall, with critical ports inadvertently left open to the internet, provided attackers with an opportunity to exploit these vulnerabilities and gain unauthorized access. Social Engineering (Option A) involves manipulating individuals to gain confidential information, Malware Infection (Option C) refers to the unauthorized installation of malicious software, and Physical Security Breach (Option D) involves unauthorized physical access, which are different from the issue of misconfiguration.
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Pytanie z
An online retail company relies heavily on its e-commerce platform and needs to minimize downtime during peak shopping seasons. The company is considering using data replication for its critical systems. How does data replication contribute to minimizing downtime for the company’s e-commerce platform?
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A. By providing real-time or near-real-time copies of data across multiple servers or locations
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B. By enhancing the processing speed of the e-commerce platform’s servers
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C. By automatically updating the e-commerce platform’s software to the latest version
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D. By reducing the physical space required for server storage
Correct Wrong
Data replication contributes to minimizing downtime for an online retail company's e-commerce platform by providing real-time or near-real-time copies of data across multiple servers or locations (A). This approach ensures that if one server or location experiences an issue, the replicated data on other servers or locations can be immediately accessed, allowing the e-commerce platform to continue operating with minimal disruption. Data replication focuses on data availability and redundancy rather than enhancing server processing speed (B), automatically updating software (C), or reducing physical space for servers (D). Therefore, the key advantage of data replication in this context is A) Providing real-time or near-real-time copies of data to maintain platform availability and minimize downtime.
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Pytanie z
A healthcare organization is enhancing its network architecture to support its critical online services. The IT team is planning to deploy a load balancer. Which of the following is an important consideration when configuring the load balancer to ensure high availability and security for the organization’s services?
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A. Implementing a round-robin algorithm for equal distribution of traffic across all servers.
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B. Configuring the load balancer to serve as the primary storage for patient data.
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C. Setting up the load balancer to perform SSL offloading for encrypted traffic.
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D. Using the load balancer to filter and block spam emails from external sources.
Correct Wrong
For a healthcare organization requiring both high availability and security for its online services, configuring the load balancer to perform SSL offloading (Option C) is a significant consideration. SSL offloading involves handling the decryption of SSL/TLS-encrypted traffic at the load balancer, which reduces the processing load on the backend servers. This configuration enhances the performance and efficiency of the servers, allowing them to handle more user requests and improving overall availability. Additionally, it maintains security by ensuring encrypted communication. A round-robin algorithm (Option A) is a common method for distributing traffic but does not specifically address the security aspect. Configuring the load balancer as primary storage (Option B) is not its intended function, and filtering spam emails (Option D) is typically the role of email security systems, not load balancers.
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Pytanie z
In a large data center, the network team is tasked with hardening the security of core switches that handle high volumes of sensitive data traffic. One of the primary concerns is protecting the switches from Denial of Service (DoS) attacks. Which of the following hardening techniques would be MOST effective in protecting these core switches from DoS attacks?
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A. Enabling Quality of Service (QoS) to prioritize critical network traffic.
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B. Configuring SNMPv3 for secure network management.
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C. Implementing rate limiting on the switch ports to control traffic flow.
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D. Regularly updating switch firmware to the latest version.
Correct Wrong
Implementing rate limiting on the switch ports (C) is the most effective technique for protecting core switches from Denial of Service (DoS) attacks. Rate limiting controls the amount of traffic that can pass through a port, preventing the switch from being overwhelmed by excessive traffic typical in DoS attacks. Enabling QoS (A) is beneficial for managing network traffic but does not specifically protect against DoS attacks. Configuring SNMPv3 (B) enhances the security of network management but does not directly address DoS attack prevention. Regularly updating firmware (D) is crucial for overall security but is a general best practice rather than a specific measure against DoS attacks.
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Pytanie z
A web application in a financial organization is experiencing slow response times. Analysis reveals an unusual pattern of database queries being executed, including several that involve large data extractions. What is the MOST likely security concern indicated by this pattern, and what should be the initial response?
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A. SQL Injection attack; review web application firewall (WAF) settings
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B. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack; increase server resources
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C. Insider threat; conduct user access review
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D. Misconfiguration; audit application configuration settings
Correct Wrong
The unusual pattern of database queries, especially those involving large data extractions, strongly suggests a SQL Injection attack. This type of attack manipulates a web application's database interactions to execute unauthorized queries. Reviewing and adjusting the web application firewall (WAF) settings can help to identify and mitigate such attacks. Option B (DDoS attack) typically affects network resources rather than database interactions. Option C (Insider threat) and Option D (Misconfiguration) could be possible causes but are less likely given the specific pattern of database queries observed.
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Pytanie z
A security analyst at a large corporation notices unusual outbound traffic patterns on the network, including a high volume of data being sent to unfamiliar external IP addresses. The analyst suspects a data exfiltration attempt. In line with the detection phase of incident response, what should be the analyst’s NEXT step after identifying this suspicious activity?
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A. Immediately disconnecting the affected systems from the network to prevent further data loss.
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B. Gathering additional information to confirm the nature and scope of the suspected incident.
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C. Notifying the legal department to prepare for potential litigation.
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D. Escalating the issue to law enforcement for investigation.
Correct Wrong
In the detection phase of incident response, it is crucial to accurately identify and understand the nature and scope of the incident. This involves gathering additional information about the suspicious activity to confirm whether it is a security incident and to assess its impact. Option B represents this critical step of further investigation to make informed decisions about how to proceed. While disconnecting affected systems (Option A) may be a subsequent action, it should not be done prematurely without sufficient understanding of the situation. Notifying legal departments (Option C) and law enforcement (Option D) are typically later steps once the incident is confirmed and more information is available.
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Pytanie z
A small business has recently contracted with a third-party vendor to manage its network infrastructure. The vendor will be responsible for maintaining network security, hardware, and software updates. In this context, which of the following should the small business prioritize to maintain a secure and reliable network environment?
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A. Delegating all security responsibilities to the vendor to maximize efficiency.
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B. Establishing a clear service level agreement (SLA) with defined security responsibilities.
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C. Choosing a vendor based solely on the recommendation of a trusted business partner.
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D. Focusing exclusively on the cost savings achieved by outsourcing network management.
Correct Wrong
When outsourcing network management to a third-party vendor, establishing a clear service level agreement (SLA) with defined security responsibilities (Option B) is crucial. An SLA should detail the roles and responsibilities of both the small business and the vendor, including specific security measures, response times, hardware and software maintenance protocols, and incident response procedures. This ensures that both parties have a clear understanding of their obligations and the standards that must be maintained. Delegating all security responsibilities to the vendor (Option A) is risky, as it's important for the business to retain some level of oversight and control. Choosing a vendor based solely on a recommendation (Option C) may overlook critical due diligence steps such as assessing the vendor's security capabilities. While cost savings (Option D) are a factor in vendor selection, focusing exclusively on this aspect can lead to compromises in security and service quality.
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Pytanie z
A financial services company is implementing a new software update in its transaction processing system. The update includes critical security patches and new compliance features. Before deployment, the change management committee reviews the update. During the review, one member insists on performing an additional risk analysis despite the update having passed all preliminary tests. How should the committee respond to ensure the integrity and security of the system?
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A. Proceed with the update without additional analysis, as it has already passed preliminary tests.
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B. Delay the update and perform the additional risk analysis as suggested.
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C. Implement the update in a controlled environment and monitor for any security issues.
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D. Reject the update until all committee members agree unanimously.
Correct Wrong
In the context of change management, particularly for critical systems like financial transaction processing, the emphasis is on ensuring security and compliance while minimizing risks. Even though the update has passed preliminary tests, the suggestion to perform additional risk analysis aligns with best practices in change management. This step is crucial to identify and mitigate any potential security vulnerabilities that might have been overlooked. It demonstrates a proactive approach to security, prioritizing thorough evaluation over expedited deployment. The approval process in change management must be rigorous, especially when dealing with critical updates that impact security and compliance.
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Pytanie z
A large manufacturing company conducts a supply chain analysis and discovers that one of its key suppliers has recently been the target of a cyberattack, leading to concerns about the security of its own network. What should be the company’s first action to mitigate any potential risk stemming from this supplier’s security breach?
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A. Immediately find an alternative supplier.
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B. Conduct a thorough review of the company’s network security.
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C. Request a detailed security report from the supplier.
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D. Temporarily halt all operations with the supplier.
Correct Wrong
Upon learning that a key supplier has been the target of a cyberattack, the manufacturing company's first action should be to conduct a thorough review of its own network security (Option B). This review is essential to identify any vulnerabilities that may have been exploited through the supply chain and to ensure that the company's network has not been compromised. It also helps in assessing the effectiveness of existing security controls and in determining if any immediate actions are needed to strengthen security. Finding an alternative supplier (Option A) or temporarily halting operations with the supplier (Option D) may be considered as longer-term strategies, but they do not address the immediate need to secure the company's own network. Requesting a detailed security report from the supplier (Option C) is a useful step to understand the nature of the breach and any potential implications, but it should not be the first action before ensuring the company's network is secure.
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Pytanie z
A financial firm is in the process of acquiring new hardware to upgrade its data centers. The procurement team is evaluating several vendors offering servers with varying levels of security features. One of the key requirements is to ensure data confidentiality and integrity. Which of the following vendor offerings should the procurement team prioritize to best meet the firm’s security needs?
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A. Servers with the highest processing power and storage capacity.
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B. Servers with built-in hardware-based encryption capabilities.
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C. Servers from the most cost-effective vendor.
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D. Servers with the longest warranty period.
Correct Wrong
The scenario emphasizes the importance of data confidentiality and integrity in a financial firm's data center upgrade. Option B, servers with built-in hardware-based encryption capabilities, directly addresses these needs by providing a means to protect data at rest and in transit. Hardware-based encryption is a crucial security feature that ensures only authorized individuals can access the data, thereby maintaining its confidentiality and integrity. Option A, focusing solely on processing power and storage capacity, does not directly address the security concerns. Option C, prioritizing cost-effectiveness, may compromise on necessary security features. Option D, considering warranty period, is important for long-term maintenance but does not impact the immediate security of data.
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Pytanie z
A company stores sensitive customer information, including personal identification numbers and credit card details, on its internal servers. The company is reviewing its security policies to enhance the protection of this data while it is at rest. Which of the following security measures would be MOST effective in protecting the sensitive data at rest on the company’s servers?
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A. Implementing a robust network firewall.
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B. Enforcing strong password policies for server access.
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C. Applying full disk encryption to the servers.
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D. Installing the latest antivirus software on the servers.
Correct Wrong
Applying full disk encryption to the servers is the most effective measure for protecting sensitive data at rest. Full disk encryption ensures that all data stored on the servers, including customer personal identification numbers and credit card details, is encrypted and unreadable without the proper decryption key. This measure provides a high level of security by protecting the data from unauthorized access or theft, particularly in the event of a physical breach or server theft. While a robust firewall (A), strong password policies (B), and antivirus software (D) are important aspects of a comprehensive security strategy, they do not specifically address the protection of data at rest in the same way that full disk encryption does.
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Pytanie z
A financial institution implements file integrity monitoring (FIM) as part of its cybersecurity measures. However, the IT department is overwhelmed with alerts, many of which are false positives related to routine software updates. As the IT security manager, what adjustment should you make to the FIM configuration to reduce false positives while maintaining effective monitoring of critical system files?
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A. Disable FIM during software update periods to reduce the volume of alerts.
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B. Fine-tune FIM settings to exclude directories where routine software updates occur.
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C. Configure FIM to generate alerts only for file changes outside business hours.
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D. Increase the alert threshold to reduce the sensitivity of FIM.
Correct Wrong
In this scenario, the challenge is to manage the high volume of alerts from the file integrity monitoring system, many of which are false positives caused by routine software updates. Option A, disabling FIM during software update periods, could create a window of vulnerability where actual malicious changes might go undetected. Option C, configuring FIM to alert only for file changes outside business hours, might miss malicious activities that occur during business hours. Option D, increasing the alert threshold, could reduce sensitivity to the point where important changes are not detected. The most effective solution is Option B, fine-tuning the FIM settings to exclude directories where routine software updates occur. This approach reduces false positives by not monitoring areas of the system that undergo expected changes, while still maintaining vigilant monitoring of critical system files and areas not typically affected by routine updates.
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